"...I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the fathers to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me..." [Deuteronomy 5:8-10]

Friday, June 11, 2004

A DIALOGUE WITH DARKSTAR 218 - PART 3 (See Tim's posts in full here).

Hi Tim

Of course lying is wrong. It's amusing that you'd suggest I think otherwise.

You say that God exists and that it therefore follows that Absolute Morality exists. But consider this. The USA is the most Christian of the developed nations. But in your country:

  • most scientists do not believe in a personal God;
  • most Christian Scholars do not believe that the Bible is inerrant; and
  • most Born-again Christians do not believe in moral absolutes.
We both agree that morality exists. But it seems to me that it would be dishonest to insist that the existence of God or of Absolute Morality isn't open to debate. What do you think?

Let's assume for the purposes of discussion that you're right - and that the Bible does provide a basis for understanding absolute morality. We've touched briefly elsewhere on 2 Sam 12:11. The KJV says:
"Thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will raise up evil against thee out of thine own house, and I will take thy wives before thine eyes, and give them unto thy neighbour, and he shall lie with thy wives in the sight of this sun."
You wrote:
"What is the context of God giving over women to rape and murder? This is David’s punishment for taking Bathsheba and killing Uriah! Does this mean that God is telling us that it’s okay to rape and murder in cold blood? Obviously not. This is God’s dispensation of judgment against David for his sin."
Do you think that it was "Absolutely Moral" to order the rape of a murder's wife as a punishment for his crime? If so, should this punishment be restored? If not, what is "Absolutely Moral" and what is not?

(BTW, I will be away for a few days. Have a great weekend.)


(Tim's response should appear on his weblog)

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